Project #161873 - principles of management

Business Tutors

Subject Business
Due By (Pacific Time) 01/07/2017 12:00 am

Q1. The high failure rate of new businesses seems primarily a consequence of inadequate planning.
    a. true
    b. false

Q2. The principle of the objective is another name for management by objectives.
    a. true
    b. false

Q3. Management-by-objectives is only a valuable tool for profit-seeking organizations.
    a. true
    b. false

Q4. XYZ Corporation sets an objective to increase its market share by 5% within 3 years. This is an example of a(n) ________ objective.
    a. suboptimal
    b. short-term
    c. principled
    d. long-term
    e. intermediate-term

Q5. One of the advantages of an MBO program is that it continually emphasizes what should be done in order for the organization to reach its goals.
    a. true
    b. false

Q6. The process of determining how the management system will achieve its objectives is planning.
    a. true
    b. false

Q7. A key element of any MBO program is top management support and commitment.
    a. true
    b. false

Q8. Planners need not have significant practical experience within the organization if they have good human relations skills.
    a. true
    b. false

Q9. Which management writer popularized management-by-objectives?
    a. Peter Drucker
    b. Henry Fayol
    c. Abraham Maslow
    d. Frederick Taylor
    e. Tom Peters

Q10. Management should never give rewards for the achievement of goals established by MBO.
    a. true
    b. false

Q11. The overall organizational objectives and the subobjectives assigned to the various people or units of the organization is referred to as suboptimization.
    a. true
    b. false

Q12. MBO programs increase the volume of paperwork in an organization.
    a. true
    b. false

Q13. Managers should establish objectives for employees that are in easy reach.
    a. true
    b. false

Q14. A group decision process in which negative feedback on any suggested alternative is forbidden until all members have presented alternatives is called brainstorming.
    a. true
    b. false

Q15. An organizational decision-maker who is willing to steal the ideas necessary to make good decisions has what type of decision-making orientation?
    a. hoarding
    b. market-oriented
    c. receptive
    d. ideal
    e. exploitative

Q16. Implementation of the chosen alternative is the final step in the decision-making process.
    a. true
    b. false

Q17. The process of ranking alternatives must be completely objective.
    a. true
    b. false

Q18. Which of the following is the final step in the decision-making process?
    a. take action
    b. implement the selected alternative
    c. select the most beneficial alternative
    d. gather feedback to find out if the problem is solved
    e. identify organizational objectives

Q19. Not all managerial decisions are of equal significance to the organization.
    a. true
    b. false

Q20. Probability theory is a decision-making tool that is used in conditions of complete uncertainty.
    a. true
    b. false

Q21. A decision that is routine and repetitive, and typically handled in a specific way, is frequently called a non-programmed decision.
    a. true
    b. false

Q22. The ideal decision-making orientation emphasizes the realization of the organization's potential as well as that of the decision-maker.
    a. true
    b. false

Q23. ________ refers to the departure from rational theory that produces suboptimal decisions.
    a. Satisficing
    b. Intuition
    c. Bias
    d. Heuristic

Q24. Decision makers who have a receptive orientation believe that the source of all good is outside themselves, and therefore rely heavily on suggestions from other organizational members.
    a. true
    b. false

Q25. Most organizational decisions are made under conditions of complete certainty.
    a. true
    b. false

Q26. In the Nominal Group Technique, group members never meet face to face.
    a. true
    b. false

Q27. Tactical planning is long-range planning that emphasizes the current operations of various parts of the organization.
    a. true
    b. false

Q28. Question marks in the BCG Growth-Share Matrix are businesses with a high market share in a slowly growing market.
    a. true
    b. false

Q29. The different components of the general environment for an organization consists of the international, labor, customer, competitor, and supplier components.
    a. true
    b. false

Q30. Strategic implementation is the last step of the strategy management process.
    a. true
    b. false

Q31. The commitment principle is a management guideline that advises managers to totally commit themselves to strategic planning.
    a. true
    b. false

Q32. Focus is a strategy that emphasizes making an organization more competitive by targeting a particular customer.
    a. true
    b. false

Q33. The ________ component is the part of the general environment related to government affairs.
    a. Economic
    b. Social
    c. Political
    d. Technological

Q34. In general, the strategy management steps can be viewed as being sequential and continuing.
    a. true
    b. false

Q35. The international component is the operating environment segment composed of factors influencing the supply of workers available to perform needed organizational tasks.
    a. true
    b. false

Q36. An organizational mission is useful because it helps define broad but important job areas within an organization, and therefore specifies critical jobs that must be accomplished.
    a. true
    b. false

Q37. The initials SWOT stand for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats.
    a. true
    b. false

Q38. The ________ component is that part of the general environment that contains passed legislation.
    a. Political
    b. Legal
    c. Economic
    d. Social

Q39. In considering selection of a site for a plant, one question an organization should ask is about the adequacy of housing and schools around potential sites.
    a. true
    b. false

Q40. Which of the following is a standing plan that outlines a series of related actions that must be taken to accomplish a particular task?
    a. rule
    b. policy
    c. procedure
    d. budget
    e. guideline

Q41. Which of the following types of plans would be considered a single-use plan?
    a. policy
    b. rule
    c. procedure
    d. guideline
    e. program

Q42. Standing plans and single-use plans are examples of which dimension in planning?
    a. time
    b. repetitiveness
    c. level
    d. scope
    e. both A and C

Q43. A rule is a standing plan that designates specific required action.
    a. true
    b. false

Q44. Repetitiveness, time, scope, and length are the four dimensions of plans.
    a. true
    b. false

Q45. The concept of forecasting can be traced at least as far back as Fayol.
    a. true
    b. false

Q46. A policy is a single-use plan that furnishes broad operating guidelines.
    a. true
    b. false

Q47. Site selection is part of input planning.
    a. true
    b. false

Q48. The jury of executive opinion of forecasting predicts future sales levels primarily by asking appropriate salespeople to give their opinions on what will happen to sales in the future.
    a. true
    b. false

Q49. The ________ method predicts future sales by analyzing the historical relationship between sales and time.
    a. Salesforce estimation
    b. Regression
    c. Delphi
    d. Moving average

Q50. Human resource planning is another area of concern for output planners.
    a. true
    b. false

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